Consider the following statements regarding the identities provided by the Constitution:

1. A constitution provides a collective identity to people when they agree to basic norms.
2. Constitutional norms provide a political identity but not a moral one.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

How many of the following protections are available as a fundamental right under the constitution to a person detained under a preventive detention law?

1. The grounds of detention should be communicated to the detenu even if it is against the public interest.
2. The detenu must be released after 24 hours unless the magistrate authorises further detention.
3. The detenu must be offered an opportunity to make a representation against the detention order.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Which among the following is not a feature of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?

Which of the following best describes the concept of Constitutionalism?

Which of the following is the objective of “Operation AMRITH”?

Which among the following is the fundamental objective of Directive Principle of State Policy?

Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission of Scheduled Tribes (NCST):

1. It was created through the 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003.
2. The conditions of service and tenure of the Chairperson and members are determined by the President.
3. The Commission, while inquiring into any complaint, has all the powers of a civil court.

How many statements given above are correct?

How many of the following are the Socialist principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

1. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor.
2. To organise village panchayats and enable them to function as units of self-government.
3. To make provision for just and humane conditions for work and maternity relief.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

How many of the following Directive Principles were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976?

1. To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children.
2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor.
3. To minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A new state can be formed by uniting two or more states through a bill passed by:

Himalayan Wolf was in the news recently. In this context, which of the following statements regarding the Himalayan Wolf is correct?

Consider the following statements with respect to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):

1. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, of 1946.
2. It functions under the Prime Minister’s Office.
3. It investigates crimes of corruption and economic offenses.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

In context to the Akash-NG (New Generation) missile, consider the following statements:

1. Akash-NG is a surface-to-air missile.
2. The missile system is equipped with a ramjet engine.
3. It is indigenously designed and developed solely by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
4. The missile system can be launched from both stationary and mobile platforms.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

How many of the following Supreme Court cases are related to disputes/conflicts between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy?

1. IR Coehlo Case, 2007
2. Golaknath case, 1967
3. Maneka Gandhi case, 1980
4. Minerva Mill Case, 1980

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

With reference to the President’s rule in a state, consider the following:

1. Reduction of powers of the concerned state high court
2. Dismissal of the state council of ministers
3. Curtailment of Fundamental rights of citizens under Article 19

How many of the above are necessarily the consequence of the proclamation of President’s rule in a state?

How many of the following options the President has with regards to the Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by both the Houses of Parliament?

1. He can withhold the assent of the bill.
2. He can return the bill for reconsideration.
3. He gives assent to the bill

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Which of the following has defined what constitutes the ‘Doctrine of Basic Structure’?

Which of the following functions are performed by the National Commission of Scheduled Castes (NCSC)?

1. To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the legal safeguards for the SCs
2. To provide safeguards against the exploitation of the Anglo-Indian community
3. To report to the President on the working of constitutional safeguards provided for SCs

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

It separated, for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General’s council. In other words, it established a separate Governor-General’s legislative council which came to be known as the Indian (Central) Legislative Council. This legislative wing of the council functioned as a mini-parliament, adopting the same procedures as the British Parliament.
Which of the following Acts has been described by the passage given above?

Which of the following statements best describes the relation between liberty and equality?

The term “Operation Prosperity Guardian” was recently seen in the news. It is aimed at aiding the safe movement of ships in:

Consider the following:

1. President
2. Lok Sabha
3. Rajya Sabha
4. Legislative assemblies
5. Legislative councils

How many of the above are compulsorily involved in all the constitutional amendment processes?

Consider the following statements with respect to the members of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):

1. The members of the CVC are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
2. The members of the CVC hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of seventy, whichever is earlier.
3. The president can also remove the Central Vigilance Commissioner on the grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to national emergency, consider the following statements:

1. The Center becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on any matter.
2. The legislative power of a state legislature is suspended.
3. The power to modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the center and the states is vested in Parliament.

How many statements given above are correct?

Consider the following corporations/ authorities:

1. Reserve Bank of India
2. Food Corporation of India
3. State Bank of India
4. Life Insurance Corporation of India

How many of the above are totally and directly audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?

Consider the following events:

1. Goa was conferred full statehood
2. Creation of the state of Haryana
3. Inclusion of the state of Sikkim in the Indian Union
4. Formation of the state of Nagaland

Arrange the above given events in the correct chronological order of their occurrence.

Consider the following statements with reference to the post-independence reorganization of states:

1. The States Reorganisation Commission accepted the theory of ‘one language one state’.
2. Andhra Pradesh was the first state created after the acceptance of the recommendations of the state reorganization committee.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following functions:

1. Ratification of India’s membership of the Commonwealth
2. Adopting the National Anthem of India
3. Enactment of ordinary laws

How many of the above functions were performed by the Constituent Assembly of India?

What is common between Bailadila, Kudremukh and Mayurbhanj?

How many of the following are envisaged as the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

1. Protection against arrest and detention
2. Prohibition of employment of children in factories.
3. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Which of the following are examples of White Goods?

1. Washing machines
2. Alcohol
3. Air conditioners
4. Luxury cars

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Consider the following statements regarding the reorganization of the states:

1. An Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign country by a constitutional amendment.
2. A boundary dispute settlement between India and another country does not require a constitutional amendment.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

With respect to the writ jurisdiction, consider the following statements:

1. The writ of habeas corpus cannot be issued against the private individuals.
2. The writ of prohibition is available only against the judicial bodies.
3. The writ of quo-warranto can be sought even by a non-aggrieved person.

How many statements given above are correct?

Consider the following features:

1. Single Citizenship
2. Written Constitution
3. Integrated Judiciary
4. Rigidity of the Constitution

How many of the above are federal features of the Indian Constitution?

An Indian citizen may lose his/her citizenship when he/she:

1. Acquires the citizenship of any other foreign state during war.
2. Unlawfully trades or communicates with the enemy during a war.
3. Has been imprisoned in any country for two years after becoming a naturalized citizen within five years.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

According to the Preamble of the Constitution, as adopted by the Constituent Assembly, how many of the following adjectives were used to define the Indian Republic?

1. Socialist
2. Sovereign
3. Secular
4. Democratic

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

‘Bubble Baby’ syndrome was in the news. In this context, consider the following statements regarding the Bubble baby syndrome (BBS):

1. It is a heart disease seen in the babies and children affected by COVID-19.
2. The only treatment for BBS is a heart transplant.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements with respect to Freedom of Religion enshrined in the Constitution:

1. It includes the freedom to not follow any religion.
2. It bars all religious conversions.
3. It is not applicable to foreign nationals residing within Indian territory.

How many statements given above are correct?

Which of the following is the latest addition to the list of fundamental duties under the Constitution of India?

Which of the following gives effect to the objective of the Preamble to secure for all its citizen equality, liberty and justice?

Consider the following statements regarding the Urea gold:

1. It is a sulphur-coated Urea.
2. Sulphur coating ensures faster release of nitrogen.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the Financial Intelligence Unit of India:

1. It is a central national agency responsible for receiving, processing, analyzing and disseminating information relating to suspect financial transactions.
2. It reports directly to the Economic Intelligence Council (EIC) headed by the Finance Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

In order to ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the Election Commission of India (ECI), which of the following provisions was/were incorporated in the Constitution of India?

1. The Constitution has debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
3. The Constitution has specified the term of all the members of ECI.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

World Economic Situation and Prospects is published by:

Which of the following happened earliest in the process of state reorganization after independence?

In the context of Indian polity, consider the following:

1. Absence of special privileges for any person
2. Reasonable classification of persons
3. Equality of treatment under equal circumstances

How many of the above is/are ensured by Article 14 of the Indian Constitution?

Attorney General of India:

1. Has the right of an audience in all courts in India.
2. Is debarred from private legal practice.
3. Has the right to speak and vote in both houses of Parliament.
4. Enjoys all privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements:

1. President can declare a National Emergency on the ground of ‘internal disturbance’.
2. The president can proclaim a National Emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet.
3. The proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.
4. Lok Sabha has no control over the revocation of the National Emergency.

How many statements given above are correct?

Which of the following is not an example of exercise of Fundamental Right?

Consider the following pairs:

1. Fundamental Rights
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Residual Powers with Centre
4. Parliamentary Form of Government

Adopted from: France, Ireland, Canada, Britain. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Consider the following statements with respect to the State Human Rights Commission (SHRC):

1. SHRC has all the powers of a civil court and its proceedings have a judicial character.
2. SHRC can inquire into the violation of human rights with respect to subjects mentioned in the state list only.
3. The chairperson and members of SHRC are not eligible for reappointment.

How many statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements with reference to the theory of the basic structure of the Constitution:

1. It limits the authority of the Parliament to amend the Constitution.
2. The judiciary has the final authority to decide if an amendment violates the basic structure of the Constitution.
3. It applies to all the amendments since the coming into force of the Constitution.

How many statements given above are correct?

Who among the following determines the qualification and the manner of selection of members of the Finance Commission?

The Fundamental Duties were added to Indian constitution on the recommendation of which of the following commissions/ committees?

Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional amendment bills:

1. A bill amending the federal provisions of the constitution should be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority.
2. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states requires a special majority of the parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding short selling:

1. It involves selling a stock not owned at the time of trade.
2. SEBI permits short selling for both retail and institutional investors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution:

1. A bill seeking to amend the Constitution can be initiated in the state legislature
2. A private member can initiate a constitutional amendment bill.
3. Each house of the Parliament must pass the constitution amendment bill separately.

How many statements given above are correct?

With reference to Direct to Mobile (D2M) Technology, consider the following statements:

1. It does not require internet connectivity to stream TV content directly to a mobile phone.
2. It is compatible with all types of mobile network generations including 2G and 3G.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India:

1. The idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward for the first time by M. N. Roy.
2. It was formed under the scheme formulated by the Wavell Plan in 1945.
3. Its members were elected indirectly by the Central Legislative Council.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Which of the following is an essential feature of democracy?

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Consider the following statements:Statement-I: India can acquire a foreign territory or it can cede a part of its territory in favor of a foreign state.Statement-II: Sovereign in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution means ‘there is no authority above India and is free to conduct its affair’. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Consider the following statements regarding the Constitution:

1. It determines the relationship among citizens and also between citizens and the government.
2. It specifies who has the power to make decisions in a society.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements with respect to the Advocate General of a state:

1. The Advocate General must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the high court.
2. The remuneration and conditions of service are determined by the legislative assembly of the concerned state.
3. She/he holds office at the pleasure of the governor.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Recently, the Prime Minister of India visited the Kalaram Mandir in Nashik, Maharashtra. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. This temple is located on the banks of river Godavari.
2. This temple is dedicated to Lord Krishna’s brother Balaram.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements with respect to Lokpal:

1. The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson with a maximum of 8 members.
2. 50% of the members of Lokpal shall be judicial members.
3. The Prime Minister and members of the union cabinet are excluded from the jurisdiction of Lokpal.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the expression ‘Union of States’ under Article 1:

1. All the states and union territories are part of the expression ‘Union of States’.
2. A Union territory enjoys a similar relationship as states with the Union government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following can be considered as the main reason for the Indian constitution to be called a living document?

How many of the following could come under ‘reasonable restrictions’ provided by the Indian Constitution on exercise of Freedom of Speech and Expression (Article 19(2))?

1. Leaking classified material by an Intelligence officer
2. Giving speech to take up arms
3. Speech which can hamper stability of government in Lok Sabha
4. Contempt of Court

Select the correct answer using code given below.

Consider the following statements regarding the amendment of the Indian Constitution:

1. A bill seeking amendment of the Constitution does not require the prior permission of the President.
2. All Constitutional Amendment bills must be ratified by half of the states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements with respect to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG):

1. CAG is the head of the Indian Audit and Account Department.
2. Removal of CAG does not require the approval of the Parliament.
3. The President prescribes the duties and powers of the CAG in relation to accounts of the Union and of the states.

How many statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements:

1. The constitution of India envisages a dual polity but single citizenship, unlike the US where there is a provision of dual citizenship.
2. While all citizens of India, irrespective of the state in which they are born or reside, enjoy the same political and civil rights of citizenship, in the United States discrimination can be based on state citizenship.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1919:

1. It introduced bicameralism in the Central Legislative Council.
2. It provided separate electorates for Anglo-Indians and Europeans.
3. It created a new office of the High Commissioner for India in London.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Which of the following statement best describes “Totalisation Agreement” which was recently seen in the news?

Consider the following statements regarding the Charter Act of 1833:

1. It deprived the legislative powers of the Governors of Bombay and Madras.
2. It ended both the commercial and administrative activities of the East India Company.
3. It introduced, for the first time, local representation in the Indian (Central) Legislative Council.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the acquisition of citizenship in India:

1. Currently, a person born outside India automatically becomes an Indian citizen by descent if one of the parents is an Indian citizen.
2. A person applying for citizenship by naturalization should have adequate knowledge of any of the languages spoken in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The power to specify that the people of a foreign territory shall be the citizens of India when a foreign territory becomes part of India is vested in:

Consider the following statements regarding the Pitts India Act of 1784:

1. It allowed the Court of Directors of East India Company to manage the political affairs in India.
2. The Company’s territories in India were for the first time called the ‘British possessions in India’.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

According to the Indian Constitution, which among the following categories of persons would be eligible to become the citizen of India on 26th January 1950?

Consider the following statements with reference to the Thirty Metre Telescope project:

1. It is a joint venture involving India, Canada, China, Japan and the USA.
2. It will provide images with resolution more than 12 times sharper than the Hubble Space Telescope.
3. It is being constructed in Svalbard, in the Arctic region.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The parliamentary system is based on the doctrine of separation of powers between the legislature and executive.

Statement II: The Indian Parliament is not a sovereign body, unlike the British Parliament.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Which of the following Directive Principles is based on the Gandhian ideology?

Consider the following countries:

1. Bahrain
2. Iran
3. Kuwait
4. Saudi Arabia

How many of the above countries shared the boundary of the Persian Gulf?

The chairperson and members of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) are appointed by the president on the recommendations of a selection committee. Which of the following are members of the selection committee?

1. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
2. Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
3. Union Home Minister
4. Prime Minister

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Consider the following:

1. Federal Public Service
2. Dyarchy at the center
3. Establishment of Reserve Bank of India
4. All-India Federation

How many of the above were provided in the Government of India Act, of 1935?

How many of the following are not Fundamental Duties under Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution?

1. To safeguard public property
2. To renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women
3. To create opportunities for healthy development of children
4. Promotion of international peace and security

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Consider the following statements with reference to Green Fuel Alliance India:

1. It is a joint partnership between India and UAE launched on the sidelines of CoP28 of UNFCCC in Dubai.
2. One of its primary objectives is reducing India’s dependence on imported crude oil from West Asian countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Indian Independence Act of 1947?

The Government of India, with the approval of the President of India, has constituted the Sixteenth Finance Commission recently. It was set up under which of the following article of the Constitution of India?

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Election Commission of India is responsible for holding elections to panchayats and municipalities.

Statement-II: Article 324 of the Constitution of India provides that the power of superintendence of elections to the Election Commission of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Consider the following benefits:

1. More accountable form of government
2. Improved quality of decision-making
3. Resolve conflicts in a better way than others

How many of the above can be considered as benefits of democracy?

In the context of the Indian Polity, the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is consulted on which of the following matters?

1. While making reservations in favor of a backward class of citizens
2. Selection for the chairmanship of tribunals
3. All matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Consider the following:

1. Children of foreign diplomats posted in India
2. Enemy aliens
3. A child of an illegal migrant

How many of the above mentioned persons would get citizenship by birth in India?

Recently, the restructuring of Coal Controller Organisation has been approved by Ministry of Finance. In this context, consider the following functions of the Coal Controller Organisation:

1. To act as the appellate authority in case of dispute between consumers and owner arising out of declaration of grade and size of coal.
2. To regulate disposal of stock of coal or the expected output of coal in the colliery.
3. To grant opening / re-opening permission of coal mine, seam or a section of seam or to sub-divide a mine.
4. Submission of monthly coal data to different ministries of Central and State Government, national and international organization.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Recently, India Meteorological Department (IMD) celebrated 150th Year of its establishment. In this context, consider the following statements regarding IMD:

1. It is the nodal agency of the Government of India for monitoring earthquake activity in the country.
2. It is headquartered at New Delhi.
3. It comes under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to Financial Emergency, consider the following statements:

1. Once approved by the Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked.
2. The satisfaction of the President in declaring a Financial Emergency is not questionable in any court.
3. Resolution to revoke Financial Emergency requires approval of the Lok Sabha by a simple majority.
4. No Financial Emergency has been declared so far.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following:

1. Influence of the Government of India Act of 1935
2. Single constitution for both Centre and states
3. Catering to the needs of a huge population of the country

How many of the above are reasons for the elephantine size of our Constitution?

How many of the following elements form a part of the ‘Basic Structure of the Constitution’ as laid down by various court judgments?

1. Secular character of the Constitution
2. Separation of powers between the legislature and the executive
3. Effective access to justice
4. Writ jurisdiction of the Supreme court
5. Socialist state

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

With reference to Article 12 of the Constitution, the term ‘State’ includes how many of the following?

1. Parliament and legislature of states.
2. Union executive and executive of the state governments.
3. Municipalities and Panchayats
4. Authorities like LIC and ONGC.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.